全国卷英语答案

第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15. 答案是 C。 1.What will James do tomorrow ? A.Watch a TV program. B.Give a talk. C.Write a report. 2.What can we say about the woman? A.She's generous. B.She's curious. C.She's helpful. 3.When does the train leave? A.At 6:30. B.At 8:30. C.At 10:30. 4.How does the woman go to work? A.By car. B.On foot. C.By bike. 5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A.Classmates. B.Teacher and student. C.Doctor and patient. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6.What does the woman regret? A.Giving up her research. B.Dropping out of college. C.Changing her major. 7.What is the woman interested in studying now? A.Ecology. B.Education. C.Chemistry. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8.What is the man? A.A hotel manager. B.A tour guide. C.A taxi driver. 9.What is the man doing for the woman? A.Looking for some local foods. B.Showing her around the seaside. C.Offering information about a hotel. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10.Where does the conversation probably take place? A.In an office. B.At home C.At a restaurant. 11.What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A.Go to a concert. B.Visit a friend. C.Work extra hours. 12.Who is Alice going to call? A.Mike . B.Joan. C.Catherine . 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13.Why does the woman meet the man? A.To look at an apartment. B.To deliver some furniture. C.To have a meal together. 14.What does the woman like about the carpet? A.Its color. B.Its design. C. Its quality . 15.What does the man say about the kitchen? A.It's a good size. B.It's newly painted. C. It's adequately equipped . 16.What will the woman probably do next? A.Go downtown. B.Talk with her friend. C.Make payment . 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17.Who is the speaker probably talking to? A.Movie fans. B.News reporters. C.College students . 18.When did the speaker take English classes? A.Before he left his hometown. B.After he came to America. C.When he was 15 years old. 19.How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A.He's proud. B.He's sympathetic. C.He's grateful . 20.What does the speaker mainly talk about ? A.How education shaped his life. B.How his language skills improved. C.How he managed his business well. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。21.Which tour do you need to book in advance? A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23.Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras. C. Meals. D. Safety lights.24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. B. She has started a new programme. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She has had a tight budget for her family. 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. B. He prepares food for her kids. C. He assists her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs. B. Provide some advice for the readers. C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet C. Making yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well for Less28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times? A.They developed very fast. B. They were large in number. C. They had similar patterns. D. They were closely connected. 29. Which of the following best explains"dominant " underlined in paragraph 2？ A.Complex. B. Advanced. C.Powerful. D.Modern. 30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6, 000 people at present? A.About 6,800 B.About 3,400 C.About 2,400 D.About 1,200 31. What is the main idea of the text? A. New languages will be created. B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in languages. C. Human development results in fewer languages. D. Geography determines language evolution.32. What does the author think of new devices? A. They are environment-friendly. B. They are no better than the old. C. They cost more to use at home. D. They go out of style quickly. 33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research? A. To reduce the cost of minerals. B. To test the life cycle of a product. C. To update consumers on new technology. D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices. 34. Which of the following uses the least energy? A. The box-set TV. B. The tablet. C. The LCD TV. D. The desktop computer. 35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices? A. Stop using them. B. Take them apart. C. Upgrade them. D. Recycle them. 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Color is fundamental in home design——something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to making a room feel the way you want it to feel. Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones. 38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows ,mirrors and baskets that most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms .Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa ,small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable . Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinner tables or bookshelves 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space. The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors .Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 . A. While all of them are useful B. Whatever you’re looking for C. If you’re experimenting with a color D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways 第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分) 第一节 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 During my second year at the city college，I was told that the education department was offering a "free"course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits.I 41 the idea of taking the class because, after all ,who doesn't want to 42 a few dollars? More than that, I'd always wanted to learn chess. And,even if I weren’t 43 enough about free credits,news about our 44 was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which 45 I would be learning from one of the game's 46 .I could hardly wait to 47 him. Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this 48 was no game for him: he meant business. In his introduction, he made it 49 that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to 50 the class ,among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to 51 what we would learn in class to our future professions and, 52 ,to our lives. I managed to get an A in that 53 and learned life lessons that have served me well beyond the 54 . Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I'm still putting to use what he 55 me:“The absolute most important 56 that you learn when you play chess is how to make good 57 .On every single move you have to 58 a situation ,process what your opponent(对手）is doing and 59 the best move from among all your options.”These words still ring true today in my 60 as a journalist. 41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down 42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay 43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired 44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor 45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant 46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest 47.A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat 48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job 49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible 50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe 51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare 52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally 53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment 54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation 55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised 56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill 57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments 58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control 59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate 60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don't have to run fast or for long 62 (see)the benefit. You may drink, smoke,be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running. While running regularly can't make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause). The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise… it's probably running. To avoid knee pain,you can run on soft surfaces,do exercises to 68 (strength)your leg muscles(肌肉),avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it's always 69 (energy).If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分) 第一节 短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除：把多余的用斜线（\）划掉。 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 注意： 1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词； 2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第l1处起）不计分。 During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed. 第二节 书面表达(满分25分) 假定你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关习俗。请你回复邮件。内容包括： 1. 到达时间； 2.合适的礼物； 3. 餐桌礼仪。 注意： 1. 词数100左右； 2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英 语 1-5 BCCBA 6-10BABCC 11-15ABAAC 16-20BCBCA 21-25ADDBC 26-30CDBCB 31-35CADBA 36-40BADGF 41-45BCADD 46-50CBDCB 51-55CACBA 56-60DBADA 61.longer 62.to see 63.dying 64.is 65.than 66.that \which 67.causes 68.strengthen 69.energetic 70.it \running During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and animals. Last winter when I went again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of . They also had a small pond they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by the fish. I felt that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return every two years, he agreed. 书面表达（略

2022年全国甲卷英语试卷共有五个省份使用，分别是云南、广西、贵州、四川、西藏，一起来看看2022年全国甲卷英语试卷答案及其解析相关内容！

一. 2022年高考全国甲卷英语真题及答案

二.  估分之后志愿填报之前准备工作

我们需要在估分之后，预测自己能上的大学。

可以立即对照着所在省份2021年一分一段表，判断我们自己在省内的高考位次情况。然后根据大学历年招生数据，即可判断出往年有哪些高校在招收我们这个位次排名段的考生，以此确认自己可以进入哪些学校就读。

但是人为计算容易出现误差和错误，因此我们建议借助现代科学手段辅助预测：

在本文下方“输入分数看能上的大学”一栏，输入自己的高考成绩、所在省市、所选科类，一键进入圆梦志愿，圆梦志愿通过大数据分析和云计算处理后，会为我们科学评估所有能上的大学以及被录取的概率。

在志愿填报之前一定要先预判自己所有可以上的大学，从而确定哪些录取概率大可以当作保底，哪些录取概率不大可以当作冲刺对象。

三. 更多关于高考内容

1. 2022年高考成绩公布时间全国各省市：2022高考成绩查询什么时候

2. 2022年高考志愿填报指南及填报规则全国各省汇总（完整版）

3. 2022高考志愿填报时间和截止时间